Question:A 59-year-old man is evaluated for progressive joint pain. There is swelling and tenderness over the first, second, and third metacarpophalangeal joints of both hands. His hand radiograph is shown. He has had diabetes mellitus for 2 years which is not well controlled with medications. Lab studies show a transferrin saturation of 88% and serum ferritin of 1,200 ng/mL. Which of the following best represents the etiology of this patient condition?
Options: (A Deposition of urate crystals (B Deposition of calcium pyrophosphate (CPP) crystals (C Inflammatory rheumatological syndrome (D Pathogenic inoculation of microbes

Explanation: Let’s solve this step-by-step, referring to authoritative sources as needed. The patient’s symptoms, joint pain, swelling, and tenderness, along with the hand radiograph and lab studies, suggest that the most likely cause is Deposition of calcium pyrophosphate (CPP) crystals. The patient’s diabetes mellitus and poor control of it, along with the high ferritin levels, suggest that the patient may have hemochromatosis.
Answer: (B
Instruction:Above is a medical question and a student-written answer, and I need you to help me extract the answer and output a single option from the four options.All you need to do is extracting the answer correctly(No matter the student's answer is right or not) and just give me the letter.Given are four examples.
Answer: A
Answer: B
Answer: C
Answer: D The response should be in all capital letters.
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