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Question Example: 
A 21-year-old sexually active male complains of fever, pain during urination, and inflammation and pain in the right knee. A culture of the joint fluid shows a bacteria that does not ferment maltose and has no polysaccharide capsule. The physician orders antibiotic therapy for the patient. The mechanism of action of action of the medication given blocks cell wall synthesis, which of the following was given?
Options:  A. Gentamicin, B. Ciprofloxacin, C. Ceftriaxone, D. Trimethoprim
Answer: Step 1: Patient Assessment and Symptom Analysis
A 21-year-old sexually active male presents with fever, pain during urination, and right knee inflammation and pain. The symptom pattern suggests a potential infection, possibly sexually transmitted, that has disseminated to the joint.

Step 2: Culture Findings
The joint fluid culture identifies a bacterium that does not ferment maltose and lacks a polysaccharide capsule, indicating a certain class of bacteria. These findings narrow down the likely pathogens.

Step 3: Treatment Selection
The physician chooses an antibiotic whose mechanism of action involves blocking cell wall synthesis. This detail is important in determining which antibiotic was administered, as different antibiotics target different bacterial structures or functions.

Step 4: Analyzing the Options
Among the choices given, Ceftriaxone is known to inhibit cell wall synthesis, a key component in bacterial replication. Gentamicin, Ciprofloxacin, and Trimethoprim do not share this mechanism of action.

Conclusion: Based on the above steps, the antibiotic given to the patient is C. Ceftriaxone.

Given Question:
A 35-year-old man comes to the physician because of itchy, watery eyes for the past week. He has also been sneezing multiple times a day during this period. He had a similar episode 1 year ago around springtime. He has iron deficiency anemia and ankylosing spondylitis. Current medications include ferrous sulfate, artificial tear drops, and indomethacin. He works as an elementary school teacher. His vital signs are within normal limits. Visual acuity is 20/20 without correction. Physical examination shows bilateral conjunctival injection with watery discharge. The pupils are 3 mm, equal, and reactive to light. Examination of the anterior chamber of the eye is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment? 
Options: A. Erythromycin ointment, B. Ketotifen eye drops, C. Warm compresses, Make sure to only use capital letters in your entire response.
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